THE UNITY OF PETER’S AND PAUL’S CONVERTS

Pastor Art Watkins of Coden Bible Church (Coden, Alabama)

August 13, 2018

Article by Angela Shadoin

This article was written by a good friend of mine, Mrs. Angela Shadoin. In this article she shows us how and why the converts of Peter and Paul were not segregated or divided as many dispensationalists teach. In fact, they were one body in Christ. Angela is a good writer and she has a grasp of this subject that everyone should consider.

I want to address what I believe is the foundational issue for the mid-Acts right division system of theology with a series of statements for you to consider, as I believe an improper understanding results in the very problem for which Paul rebuked the Corinthians - division within the body of Christ.

I say that because at the center of the mid-Acts system is the belief that the body of Christ began with the Apostle Paul; and therefore, those who believed in time prior to Paul's conversion, those to whom the 12 ministered, and those who are believers during what is called "the tribulation" in the future are excluded from Christ's body. Division within the body of Christ living today also results, as it seems to be an "us" versus "them" mentality with the "them" being those caught up in a system of religion, while the "us" believes they have things figured out Biblically - all the while seemingly ignorant that they are adhering to a man-made system as well.

Many will say that having the 12 (and others) in Christ's body is a "mixing of things". But do you suppose it may actually be putting together what was no longer supposed to be divided or separated? Do you suppose Paul really meant that in Christ believers are fitly framed and joined together, or do you suppose Paul actually meant to exclude some believers in the Lord from being joined together so as to divide Christ? With that, I would like you to carefully consider the following:

Consider the middle wall of partition. Was it taken down by the work done on the cross or not? If it were, then why would it still be up for believers who just so happened to believe on the Lord after hearing from one of the 12? And if it were broken down, why would it be rebuilt at some later point in time? Does that even make sense?

Was Paul to make all men see the fellowship of the mystery, but segregate out and prohibit some men from sharing in this fellowship if they believed prior to when he was saved? Did Paul have to make a disclaimer when he ministered to folks that there was great fellowship to be afforded on account of the mystery, but that it didn't apply to those who may have come to believe prior to when he did? Did he have to give them the date of when the Lord met him on the road to Damascus so they could compare it to when they believed on the Lord to see if they could be a part of this fellowship?

Consider that Paul told the Galatians that if anyone at all preached any other gospel than what he had preached, that person was to be accursed. And consider that Peter wrote his first epistle to those who had scattered to several places, one of which was Galatia. If Peter were preaching a different way for a man to be justified before a holy God, shouldn't we read somewhere in his epistle that those who had come to believe under his ministry needed to be careful not to try to evangelize those who may have heard a message from Paul (or one of those traveling with him) lest they be accursed? I would certainly think so, but we don't find any such admonition. Shouldn't Peter have sent out a memo (at least after he and others had met with Paul at what has come to be known as the Jerusalem Council) to strictly warn all who had heard him preach on the day of Pentecost or afterwards, that before they shared their good news with others that they needed to ask first if the person had already heard a message from Paul (or one of the ones in his group) lest when they shared they would be accursed for preaching another gospel? What about those who may have come to believe after hearing from someone who had scattered after the stoning of Stephen? Who was going to warn them to be careful regarding to whom they shared their gospel message lest they be accursed as well?

Consider that Peter, as referenced above, says he is writing to those who had scattered to Galatia (among other places) who were obviously believers according to the rest of the text. Then, consider Paul said he wrote to the churches (plural) in Galatia. Did Paul make sure to exclude certain churches from his address or certain believers within those churches who had believed from the ministry of one of the 12? Wouldn't Paul be rebuilding a wall which Christ had torn down if he did? And what does it mean that Paul didn't exclude them?

Consider those who came from Rome for Pentecost (Acts 2:10). Surely some either were or became believers - even if only a few. Consider that Paul wrote to the believers at Rome. Did he make sure to mention that he wasn't writing to all believers there but only those who may have come to believe from someone associated with himself (because remember, Paul hadn't even been to Rome when he wrote to these believers.) Did Paul make a point to exclude those in Rome who may have been present on the day of Pentecost and believed after hearing Peter preach when he said in Romans 12:5, "So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another"? (The Romans were Peter’s converts and not Paul’s. Pastor Art Watkins)

Consider 1 Corinthians 1:2 and to whom Paul addresses his letter: "Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:" Paul includes in his address all in every place who call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord. Does he exclude any who call on the name of the Lord? No. Did those of "Peter's group" call on the name of the Lord? Yes. Now, consider what he says of these to whom he is addressing his epistle a little later: "For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Corinthians 12:12-13).

Consider that when Paul spoke of being a wise masterbuilder, it was in the context of calling the church at Corinth a building. It was after speaking of them being God's husbandry and about planting and watering. The body of Christ in general is not in the context.

Consider that when Paul said he didn't want to build on another man's foundation that he goes on to tell us what that means: he wanted to preach where Christ hadn't been named so that others might hear the good news. Nowhere is building on a different "program" mentioned.

Consider those who Paul said were "in Christ" before he was. Can they truly be of a different "group" or "in Christ" in a different way when Paul asks the Corinthians "is Christ divided?"

Consider that Paul said "If any man be in Christ he is a new creature." Did he say if any man be "in the body of Christ" or just "in Christ"? What about 1 Thessalonians 4:16? Paul says, "For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:" Did Paul say the dead "in the body of Christ" will rise first, or simply "the dead in Christ shall rise first"? If there is truly a difference in being "in Christ" and being "in the body of Christ", wouldn't Paul be careful to whom he applies these statements? Might it be that Paul doesn't make a qualification between the two because there is truly no difference? However, supposing there is a difference, then we must apply what Paul says about those "in Christ" to everyone who is "in Christ" - such as those Peter references in 1 Peter 5:14, "Greet ye one another with a kiss of charity. Peace be with you all that are in Christ Jesus. Amen."

Consider Ephesians 5:25 when Paul said Christ loved the church and gave Himself for it. Did Paul need to clarify which church? Remember that Paul said he persecuted the church of God and wasted it. Paul addressed the Corinthians as the "church of God". So, if these are distinct "groups", for which church did Christ love and give Himself? Consider further that when Paul said he persecuted the church of God, that Christ said what Paul was doing was persecuting Him. Could this be because the church which Paul was persecuting was the body of Christ?

Consider Matthew 26:26 and 1 Corinthians 10:17. Matthew 26:26 says, "And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body." 1 Corinthians 10:17 says, "For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread.

Consider Ephesians 2:16: "And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:" Who are the both who are reconciled in one body? In context, it is the circumcision and uncircumcision. Does the passage anywhere say only those of the circumcision who believed in time after Paul? Or does this apply to all circumcised believers? If it applies to all, and I think the answer to that should be clear, then according to Paul, aren't all circumcised believers in Christ's body? Can we honestly exclude any?

It was after considering these things myself that I came to the conclusion to which Paul wanted the Corinthians to come, which is that Christ is not divided. It seems rather clear that believers - even the 12 and those to whom they ministered - are all a part of Christ's body. One body, fitly framed and joined together in Christ.

I might add this to what Angela has so clearly written; In John 14:20 Jesus told the 12 apostles that he was going to leave them and go back to his Father in heaven and that he would send the Spirit back to them and when he came Jesus said: At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you. That day came in Acts 2 with the coming of the Spirit. From that day forward Christ began to dwell in all believers and all believers were in Christ which is precisely why the church is called the “body of Christ”. So it’s not a question as to whether or not Peter’s converts were in the body of Christ or not, for they were in Christ and Christ was in them YEARS before Paul and uncircumcised gentiles were even saved. Part of the mystery of Ephesians 3:6 is that gentiles are now made members of the SAME body with the Jews. The first members of the body were the Jews who believed on Christ (Eph. 1:12) and gentiles were added to the SAME body with them by faith alone in the gospel. And all of the members of the body of Christ, Jew or gentile, share in the same gospel, doctrines and blessings and promises as the others.

Do not divide and separate what God has joined together. Every believing Jew and gentile in the New Testament are members of the church which is Christ’s body, no matter if they are Peter’s or Paul’s converts.